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by dfc
5006 days ago
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Well the feds did care about switchblades, that is why they passed a law banning the interstate sale of switchblades, "the Switchblade Knife Act, (Pub.L. 85-623, 72 Stat. 562, enacted on August 12, 1958, and codified in 15 U.S.C. §§ 1241–1245), prohibits the manufacture, importation, distribution, transportation, and sale of switchblade knives in commercial transactions substantially affecting interstate commerce[56] between any state."[1] Evidence for a continued interest in switchblades can be found in the recent exemption carved out for assisted opening knives in 5 USC § 1244.[2] (I think the exemptions in 1244 were passed within the last 5 years as part of a Homeland Security appropriations bill, but I'm fuzzy on the exact date.) Wickard was 70 years ago, interstate commerce doctrine has evolved a lot in the intervening years. In fact I'm a little surprised that you used it as an example. It has been a while since ConLaw I, but I think Wickard is often used as an example of the height of the broad interpretation of the commerce clause. Are you arguing that there is no limit on the power of the the commerce clause? Or that Wickard is the controlling case? Lopez is one of many cases since Wickard where the Supremes walked back such a broad interpretation of the commerce clause. [1] http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Switchblade#Federal_law [2] http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/15/1244 |
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The Supremes haven't overturned Wickard.
Yes, they did decide that the first version of the Gun Free School Zones Act didn't have a commerce nexus, but they seem quite content with the current version, which affects only those guns that have gone interstate.
However, the relevant question is whether the Supremes have ever decided that something sold can be exempt from the federal power to regulate interstate commerce.
Take machine guns. A Montana statute that allows unrestricted sale of machine guns made in Montana clearly affects "commerce" (in Montana at the very least) of guns not made in Montana, aka "interstate guns".
Do you really think that the Supremes would reject that argument? On what basis?
And, if they accept that argument wrt guns, why wouldn't they accept it wrt cantalope?