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by scarab92
235 days ago
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Because the fine amount is specific to the harm done by one product line, in one market. Whereas Apple’s profit figure reflects their total profit across all products and all markets combined. It’s meaningless comparing these, because it’s not an equal basis of comparison. |
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If that's the case then using their total profit seems the only proper measure. What it says is that these companies lose these cases but it's so infrequent that they can just price it in. It's a cost of doing business.
If we were to fine Tim Cook 1000$ for doing something that paid him 1M would that have the 'effect' of keeping him from doing that again?