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by froobius
235 days ago
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Ah, that's not correct... That explains why you think it's "trite", (which it isn't). The distribution is uniform before you get the measurement of time taken already. But once you get that measurement, it's no longer uniform. There's a decaying curve whose shape is defined by the time taken so far. Such that the statement above is correct, and the estimate `time_left=time_so_far` is useful. |
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If P(1 more minute | 1 minute so far) = x, then why would P(1 more minute | 2 minutes so far) < x?
Of course, P(it will last for 2 minutes total | 2 minutes elapsed) = 0, but that can only increase the probabilities of any subsequent duration, not decrease them.