[zettabomb]

I have always wondered why Turkey chose to Latinize in this way. I understand that the issue is having two similar vowels in Turkish, but not why they decided to invent the dotless I, when other diacritics already existed. Ĭ Î Ï Í Ì Į Ĩ and almost certainly a dozen other would've worked, unless there was already some significance to the dot in Turkish that's not obvious.

[jeroenhd]

Computers and localisation weren't relevant back in the early 20th century. The dotless existed before the dotted i (in Greek script as iota). Some European scholars putting an extra dot on the letter to make it stand out a bit more are as much to blame as the Turks for making the distinction between the different i-vowels clear.

Really, this bug is nothing but programmers failing to take into account that not everybody writes in English.

[JuniperMesos]

It's not exactly programmers failing to take into account that no everybody writes in English - if that were the case, then it would simply be impossible to represent the Turkish lowercase-dotless and uppercase-dotted I at all. The actual problem is failing to take into account that operations on text strings that work in one language's writing might not work the same way in a different language's writing system. There's a lot of languages in the world that use the Latin writing system, and even if you are personally a fluent speaker and writer of several of them, you might simply have not learned about Turkish's specific behavior with I.

[jagrsw]

> that not everybody writes in English.

I don't know... I understand the history and reasons for this capitalization behavior in Turkish, and my native language isn't English, which had to use a lot of strange encodings before the introduction of UTF-8.

But messing around with the capitalization of ASCII <= codepoint(127) is a risky business, in my opinion. These codepoints are explicitly named:

"LATIN CAPITAL LETTER I" "LATIN SMALL LETTER I"

and requiring them to not match exactly during capitalization/diminuitization sounds very risky.

[troad]

> Really, this bug is nothing but programmers failing to take into account that not everybody writes in English.

This bug is the exact opposite of that. The program would have worked fine had it used pure ASCII transforms (±0x20); it was the use of library functions that did in fact take Turkish into account that caused the problem.

More broadly, this is not an easy issue to solve. If a Turkish programmer writes code, what is the expected behaviour for metaprogramming and compilers? Are the function names in English or Turkish? What about variables, object members, struct fields? You could have one variable name that references some government ID number using its native Turkish name, right next to another variable name that uses the English "ID". How does the compiler know what locale to use for which symbol?

Boiling all of this down to 'just be more considerate' is not actually constructive or actionable.

[jeroenhd]

The issue is actually quite easy to solve by specifying a default locale for string operations when you are not dealing with user input. Whether you pick US or ROOT or Turkish as a default locale, all you need to do is make sure that your fancy metaprogramming tricks relying on strings-as-enums are all parsed the same way. Locale.ROOT for Java, InvariantCulture or ToUpperInvariant() for C#, you name it.

The whole problem is that the compiler has no idea about the locale of any strings in the system, that's why it's on the programmer to specify them.

Lowercasing/uppercasing a string takes an (infuriatingly) optional locale parameter, and the moment that gets involved, you should think twice before using it for anything other than user data processing. I would happily see Oracle deprecate all string operations lacking a locale in the next version of Java.

[troad]

> actually quite easy to solve

I cannot square your earlier assertion that we should be more mindful "that not everybody writes in English", with your current assertion that all code must only ever contain English, for simplicity's sake. Either is a cogent position on its own, just not both at the same time.

This bug arose because the programmers made incorrect assumptions about the result of a case-changing operation. If you impose English case rules on Turkish symbol names, this exact bug would simply arise in reverse.

More problematically, as I alluded to earlier, Turkish code may contain a mix of languages. It may, for example, be using a DSL to talk to a database with fields named in Turkish, as well as making calls to standard library functions named in English. Which half of the code is your proposed invariant locale going to break?

[nurettin]

There was actually three! i (as in th[i]s), î (as in ch[ee]se) and ı which sounds nothing like the first two, it sounds something like the e in bag[e]l. I guess it sounded so different that it warranted such a drastic symbolic change.

[ithkuil]

Turkish exhibits a vowel harmony system and uses diacritics on other vowels too and the choice to put "i" together with other front vowels like "ü" and "ö" and put "ı" together with back vowels like "u" and "o" is actually pretty elegant.

The latinization reform of the Turkish language predates computers and it was hard to foresee the woes that future generations would have had with that choice

[mrighele]

The issue is not the invention of the dotless I, it already exists, the issue is that the took a vowerl , i/I, and the assigned the lower case to one vowel, and the upper case to a different one, and invented what left missing.

It's like they decided that the uppercase of "a" is "E" and the uppercase of "e" is "A".

[pinkmuffinere]

This is misleading, because it assumes that i/I naturally represent one vowel, which is just not the case. i/I represents one vowel in _English_, when written with a latin script. ̶I̶n̶ ̶f̶a̶c̶t̶ ̶e̶v̶e̶n̶ ̶t̶h̶i̶s̶ ̶i̶s̶n̶'̶t̶ ̶c̶o̶r̶r̶e̶c̶t̶,̶ ̶i̶/̶I̶ ̶r̶e̶p̶r̶e̶s̶e̶n̶t̶s̶ ̶o̶n̶e̶ ̶p̶h̶o̶n̶e̶m̶e̶,̶ ̶n̶o̶t̶ ̶o̶n̶e̶ ̶v̶o̶w̶e̶l̶.̶ <see troad's comment for correction>

There is no reason to assume that the English representation is in general "correct", "standard", or even "first". The modern script for Turkish was adopted around the 1920's, so you could argue perhaps that most typewriters presented a standard that should have been followed. However, there was variation even between different typewriters, and I strongly suspect that typewriters weren't common in Turkey when the change was made.

[troad]

> In fact even this isn't correct, i/I represents one phoneme, not one vowel.

Not quite. In English, 'i' and 'I' are two allographs of one grapheme, corresponding to many phonemes, based on context. (Using linguistic definitions here, not compsci ones.) The 'i's in 'kit' and 'kite' stand for different phonemes, for example.

> There is no reason to assume that the English representation is in general "correct", "standard", or even "first".

Correct, but the I/i allography is not exclusive to English. Every Latin script functions that way, other than Turkish and Turkish-derived scripts.

No one is saying Turkish cannot break from that convention - they can feel free to do anything they like - but the resulting issues are fairly predictable, and their adverse effects fall mainly on Turkish speakers in practice, not on the rest of us.

[Muromec]

> but the resulting issues are fairly predictable, and their adverse effects fall mainly on Turkish speakers in practice, not on the rest of us.

I don't think it's fair to call it predictable. When this convention was chosen, the problem of "what is the uppercase letter to I" was always bound to the context of language. Now it suddenly isn't. Shikata ga nai. It wasn't even an explicit assumption that can be reflected upon, it was an implicit one, that just happened.

[pinkmuffinere]

> Not quite. In English, 'i' and 'I' are two allographs of one grapheme, corresponding to many phonemes, based on context. (Using linguistic definitions here, not compsci ones.) The 'i's in 'kit' and 'kite' stand for different phonemes, for example.

You're right, apologies my linguistics is rusty and I was overconfident.

> Correct, but the I/i allography is not exclusive to English. Every Latin script functions that way, other than Turkish and Turkish-derived scripts.

I think my main argument is that the importance of standardizing to i/I was much less obvious in the 1920's. The benefits are obvious to us now, but I think we would be hard pressed to predict this outcome a-priori.

[ginko]

>This is misleading, because it assumes that i/I naturally represent one vowel, which is just not the case.

It does in literally any language using a latin alphabet other than Turkish.

[okanat]

All other Turkic languages also copied this for their Latin script: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dotless_I

[pinkmuffinere]

This may be correct, I'd have to do a 'real' search, which I'm too lazy to do, lol sorry. However there are definitely other (non-latin) scripts that have either i or I, but for which i/I is not a correct pair. For example, greek has ι/Ι too.

[ozgung]

Nope, we decided to do it the correct and logical way for our alphabet. Some glyphs are either dotted or dotless. So, we have Iı, İi, Oo, Öö, Uu, Üü, Cc, Çç, Ss and Şş. You see the Ii pair is actually the odd one in the series.

Also, we don't have serifs in our I. It's just a straight line. So, it's not even related to your Ii pair in English. You can't dictate how we write our straight lines, can you.

The root cause of the problem is in the implementation and standardization of the computer systems. Computers are originally designed only for English alphabet in mind. And patched to support other languages over time, poorly. Computers should obey the language rules, not the other way around.

[thaumasiotes]

> Computers are originally designed only for English alphabet in mind.

Computers are originally designed for no alphabet at all. They only have two symbols.

ASCII is a set of operating codes that includes instructions to physically move different parts of a mechanical typewriter. It was already a mistake when it was used for computer displays.

[JuniperMesos]

Note that ASCII stands for "American Standard Code for Information Interchange". There's no expectation here that this is a suitable code for any language other than English, the de-facto language of the United States of America.

[anonymars]

Does the situation change in Unicode?

[oneshtein]

Yep, but you decided to abuse Latin alphabet instead of creating your own code page with your own letters and with your own rules.

[ozgung]

We created our own letters and our own rules. In 1928, long before code pages and computers.

The assumption that letters come in universal pairs is wrong. That assumption is the bug. You can’t assume that capitalization rules must be the same for every language implementing a specific alphabet. Those rules may change for every language. They do.

And not just capitalization rules. Auto complete, for instance, should respect the language as well. You can’t “correct” a French word to an English word. Localization is not optional when dealing with text.

[silon42]

Do all the letters have separate unicode codepoints? (no reuse Latin ones?)

[dropbear3]

There are the following codepoints:

    U+0049 I LATIN CAPITAL LETTER I
    U+0069 i LATIN SMALL LETTER I
    U+0130 İ LATIN CAPITAL LETTER I WITH DOT ABOVE
    U+0131 ı LATIN SMALL LETTER DOTLESS I

While the names of the first two don't explicitly state that they should be dotless and dotted, respectively, the Unicode standard section on the block containing those two [0] does contrast them with the dotted and dotless versions, at least implying that they should be rendered dotless and dotted, respectively.

Unicode has historically been against adding a separate codepoint for every single language's orthography when the glyphs are (almost) identical to an existing one ("allographs"). Controversy arose when the consortium proposed considering Han characters, which do have language variants, to be allographs, which led to what is known as "Han unification".

[0]: https://www.unicode.org/charts/PDF/U0000.pdf

[zettabomb]

>Also, we don't have serifs in our I.

That depends on font.

>So, it's not even related to your Ii pair in English.

Modern Turkish uses the Latin script, of course it's related.

>You can't dictate how we write our straight lines, can you.

No, I can't, I just want to understand why the Turks decided to change this letter, and this letter only, from the rest of the standard Latin script/diacritics.

[ozgung]

> I just want to understand why the Turks decided to change this letter, and this letter only

Because Turkish uses a phonetic alphabet suited for Turkish sounds, based on latin letters. There are 8 vovels come in two subsets:

AIOU and EİÖÜ.

When you pair them with zip(), pairs are phonetically related sounds but totally different letters at the same time. Turkish also uses suffixes for everything, and vowels in these suffixes sometimes change between these two subgroups.

This design lets me write any word uniquely and almost correctly using the Turkish alphabet.

Dis dizayn lets mi rayt ani vörd yüniğkli end olmost koreğtkli yuzing dı törkiş alfabet.

Ö is the dotted version of O. İ is the dotted version of I. Related but different. Their lower case versions are logically (not by historical convention): öoiı. So we didn’t just wanted to change I, and only I. We just added dots. Since there are no Oö pair in any language our OoÖö vovels didn’t get the same attention. Same for our Ğğ and Şş.

I hope this answers the question.

[steezeburger]

I don’t think that’s the right way to think about it. It’s not like they were Latinizing Turkish with ASCII in mind. They wanted a one-to-one mapping between letters and sounds. The dot versus no dot marks where in your mouth or throat the vowel is formed. They didn’t have this concept that capital I automatically pairs with lowercase i. The dot was always part of the letter itself. The reform wasn’t trying to fit existing Western conventions, it was trying to map the Turkish sounds to symbols.

[LudwigNagasena]

They switched from Arabic script to Latin script. They literally did latinize Turkish, but they ditched the convention of 1 to 1 correspondence between lowercase and uppercase letters that is invariant across all languages that use Latin script except for German script, Turkish script and its offspring Azerbaijani script.

[cachius]

> correspondence between lowercase and uppercase [not in] German script

Where is it broken in German script? Do you mean small ß and capital ẞ?

[LudwigNagasena]

Yes, ẞ is an optional variant of ß, which is traditionally capitalized as SS.

[steezeburger]

I was just saying they didn't do that with ASCII in mind. I was not saying they didn't Latinize.

[okanat]

Not really. Turkish has a feature that is called "vowel harmony". You match suffixes you add to a word based on a category system: low pitch vs high pitch vowels where a,ı,o,u are low pitch and e,i,ö,ü are high pitch.

Ö and ü were already borrowed from German alphabet. Umlaut-added variants of 'ö' and 'ü' have a similar effect on 'o' and 'u' respectively: they bring a back vowel to front. See: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vowel . Similarly removing the dots bring them back.

Turkish already had i sound and its back variant which is a schwa-like sound: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Close_back_unrounded_vowel . It has the same relation in IPA as 'ö' has to 'o' and 'ü' has to 'u'. Since the makers of the Turkish variant of Latin Alphabet had the rare chance of making a regular pronunciation system with the state of the language and since removing the dots had the effect of making a front vowel a back vowel, they simply copied this feature from ö and ü to i:

Just remove the dots to make it a back vowel! Now we have ı.

When comes to capitalization, ö becomes Ö, ü becomes Ü. So it is just logical to make the capital of i İ and the lowercase of I ı.

[ithkuil]

Yes it's hard to come up with a different capital than I unless you somehow can see into the future and foresee the advent of computers, which the Turkish alphabet reform predates.

Of course the latin capital I is dotless because originally the lowercase latin "i" was also dotless. The dot has been added later to make text more legible.

[thaumasiotes]

> low pitch vs high pitch vowels where a,ı,o,u are low pitch and e,i,ö,ü are high pitch.

Does that reflect the Turkish terminology? Ordinarily you would call o and u "high" while a and e are "low". The distinction between o/u and ö/ü is the other dimension: o/u are "back" while ö/ü are "front".

[selcuka]

> Does that reflect the Turkish terminology?

Yes. The Turkish terms are "kalın ünlü" and "ince ünlü". They literally translate to "low pitch wovel"/"high pitch wovel" )(or "thick wovel"/"thin wovel") in this context.

There is a second wovel harmony rule [1] (called lesser wovel harmony) that makes the distinction you pointed out. Letters a/e/ı/i are called flat wovels, and o/ö/u/ü are called round wovels.

[1] https://georgiasomethingyouknowwhatever.wordpress.com/2015/0...

[oneshtein]

So, instead of adding two full letters, with proper upper case and lower case, you added two halves to hack Latin alphabet. This is the bug.

[ayhanfuat]

Except for the a/e pair, front and back vowels have dotted and dotless versions in Turkish: ı and i, o and ö, u and ü.

[o11c]

In that case they should've used ï for consistency.

[thaumasiotes]

That would be the opposite of consistency; i is the front vowel and ı is the back one.

Note that the vowel /i/ cannot umlaut, because it's already a front vowel. The ï you cite comes from French, where the two dots represent diaeresis rather than umlaut. When umlaut is a feature of your language, combining the notation like that isn't likely to be a good idea.

[zettabomb]

Makes sense enough, but why not use i and ï to be consistent?

[okanat]

Turkish i/İ sounds pretty similar to most of the European languages. Italian, French and German pronounce it pretty similar. Also removing umlauts from the other two vowels ö and ü to write o and u has the same effect as removing the dot from i. It is just consistent.

[zettabomb]

No, what I mean is, o and u get an umlaut (two dots) to become ö and ü, but i doesn't get an umlaut, it's just a single dot from ı to i. Why not make it i and ï? That would be more consistent, in my opinion.

[selcuka]

I guess the aim was to reuse as much of the standard Latin alphabet as possible.

A better solution would have been to leave i/I as they are (similar to j/J), and introduce a new lowercase/uppercase letter pair for "ı", such as Iota (ɩ/Ɩ).

[zahlman]

See https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=45564152.

[ayhanfuat]

This was shortly after the Turkish War of Independence. Illiteracy was quite high (estimated at over 85%) and the country was still being rebuilt. My guess is they did their best to represent all the sounds while creating a one to one mapping between sounds and letters but also not deviating too much from familiar forms. There were probably conflicting goals so inconsistencies were bound to happen.