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by bkandel
262 days ago
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From https://www.cochrane.org/evidence/CD004816_statins-primary-p...: > Of 1000 people treated with a statin for five years, 18 would avoid a major CVD event which compares well with other treatments used for preventing cardiovascular disease. Taking statins did not increase the risk of serious adverse effects such as cancer. Statins are likely to be cost-effective in primary prevention. |
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> Fourteen trials recruited patients with specific conditions (raised lipids, diabetes, hypertension, microalbuminuria). All‐cause mortality was reduced by statins (OR 0.86, 95% CI 0.79 to 0.94); as was combined fatal and non‐fatal CVD RR 0.75 (95% CI 0.70 to 0.81), combined fatal and non‐fatal CHD events RR 0.73 (95% CI 0.67 to 0.80) and combined fatal and non‐fatal stroke (RR 0.78, 95% CI 0.68 to 0.89). Reduction of revascularisation rates (RR 0.62, 95% CI 0.54 to 0.72) was also seen.
So the evidence base is a collection of studies where most of the participants had at least one prior indicator of CVD or diabetes, and their outcome is a relatively weak benefit to all-cause mortality, CVD, CHD and stroke. For primary prevention, what you really want is a strong outcome in a study of people without any prior indication of disease [1].
I think the article posted by parent is exaggerating, but even the Cochrane review is pulling its punches here, saying specifically "cost-effective in primary prevention", instead of the stronger claim. Common jokes about putting statins in the water supply aside, there's not a ton of evidence for giving them to, say, otherwise healthy 20-somethings.
[1] Imagine the following, not-uncommon scenario: you have an otherwise healthy patient who is both pre-diabetic, as well as presenting with elevated cholesterol. Statins have a tendency to elevate blood glucose. So which risk do you choose?
The available evidence provides poor guidance.