|
|
|
|
|
by jibal
300 days ago
|
|
> is only a fallacy when it involves changing your definitions after counterexamples are presented That is false. Edit: The fact is that we have the counterexample: the piece of code written by a zig developer who somehow isn't actually a zig developer. Where the counterexample comes from, who presents it, and when isn't relevant to whether this is a fallacy. The Wikipedia article overstresses the order of things, but that is never an issue with a fallacy. There are thousands upon thousands of examples where, e.g., someone claims that people aren't Christians because they don't follow Christ's teachings and that claim is called out as a No True Scotsman fallacy--it implicitly redefines what "Christian" is for the sake of denying that a Christian actually is a Christian, in order to preserve some claim of some virtue of Christianity in the face of clear evidence to the contrary. |
|
To say "No true Scotsman would dislike haggis" is to assert "If A, then B": If you are a true Scotsman, then you will like haggis. The response "Angus doesn't like haggis" is asserting "not B". To which the response "therefore he's not a true Scotsman" is asserting "not A". But "if A, then B" logically implies "if not B, then not A". Therefore when the person's definitions don't change, *it is not a fallacy*. It might be wrong — his definition of a "true" Scotsman might be a false premise — but the conclusion logically follows from the premise, so it is not a fallacy.