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by remon 336 days ago
Curious if anyone can weigh in on why Flix requires a developer to explicitly mark a function as pure. I'd imagine in almost all cases this can be derived through static analysis.
3 comments

I think if you mark a function as pure the compiler guarantees that this is indeed the case.
I could be wrong, but the sentence "Flix precisely tracks the purity of every expression in a program." together with some examples of function definitions without the purity/impurity annotation, gave me the impression it's optional, because the compiler can infer it on its own most of the time.
Just like const, private and static.