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by demetrius
344 days ago
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> to dramatize what would otherwise be a dry spelling shift I don't think that's how it was developed, though. I really doubt there are real-world cases where cwen was scrubbed and queen written above it (correct me if I'm wrong!). I think it’s more like “people stopped writing English for time being, only learned to write Norman and Latin, so when they needed to write a word or two, they’s use the spelling they knew. Eventually, this spelling because the way of writing English”. I don’t think a situation with Godwin is plausible. > I never realized the irony that English avoids
> diacritics because of French influence I'm not sure that's the best way to put it. Old English also generally didn’t use diacritics (modern texts add them: we’d use cwēn instead of cƿen, but these are modern invention). So, English didn't use diacritics before Normans, and Normans didn't change this. |
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