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by seanhunter
340 days ago
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If you restrict yourself to Lebesque-integrable functions, can’t you take the complex Fourier transform of the function and call the terms of the Fourier series a basis, with the coefficients being the components of the vector of the function? This is a bit above my current mathematical paygrade, so forgive me if I’m not expressing the idea accurately but I’m learning a lot both from the article and the ensuing discussion - hopefully you understand what I’m getting at. I think what I may be asking is “Does the complex Fourier transform make a Hilbert space?” but I might be wrong both about that and about that being the right question. |
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Another example is the eigenvectors of linear operators like the Laplacian. Recall how, in finite dimension, the eigenvectors of a full rank operator (matrix) form an orthonormal basis of the vector space. There is a similar notion in infinite dimension. I can't find an English page that covers this very well, but there's a couple of paragraphs in the Spectral Theorem page (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spectral_theorem#Unbounded_sel... ). The article linked here also touches on this.
Regarding your last sentence, one thing to note is that having a basis is not what makes you a Hilbert space, but rather having an inner product! In fact, to get the Fourier coefficients, you need to use that inner product.