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by gruez
360 days ago
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>TL;DR: it can be argued that the existence of sidewalks is a concession that roads are only for cars, where previously they were for everyone, including pedestrians. Unless you're defining "roads" to mean "not sidewalks", then almost by definition the statement "roads are only for cars" is false, because sidewalks are part of roads, reserved for pedestrians, and therefore roads aren't only for cars. The fact that there are reserved lanes for a particular type of traffic doesn't imply there was some sort of "concession that roads are only for" some other type of traffic, any more than bus lanes, HOV lanes, or bike lanes imply that pedestrians are getting pushed out. |
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