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by drdeca
367 days ago
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If you use ZFC+Consistent(ZFC) as your meta-theory, and within it consider a model of ZFC, then surely one can consider the set (in the meta theory) of sentences which pick out a unique real number in the model, and then the set of real numbers in the model which are picked out by some sentence? It might not be a set that belongs to the model, but it’s a set in the meta-theory, right? And, I imagine that the set of real numbers of the meta theory could be (in the meta theory) the same set as the set of real numbers in the model? |
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(for an extreme example of this, by the Löwenheim–Skolem theorem there are countable models of ZFC)
So you can do what you are suggesting, and you will of course get a countable set of reals (or what are reals according to the inner model), but they might not be countable according to the inner model. They might not even be a set according to the inner model, and there are even inner models that think you've got all of the reals!
(see https://mathoverflow.net/questions/351659/set-of-definable-r... pretty heavy reading)
So the statement "the set of definable reals is countable" is nonsense - you're talking about things that live in different universes of meaning.