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by vidarh
366 days ago
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Given that we know of no computable function that isn't Turing computable, and the set of Turing computable functions is known to be equivalent to the lambda calculus and equivalent to the set of general recursive functions, what is an immensely large hurdle would be to show even a single example of a computable function that is not Turing computable. If you can do so, you'd have proven Turing, Kleen, Church, Goedel wrong, and disproven the Church-Turing thesis. No such example is known to exist, and no such function is thought to be possible. > Turing machines (and equivalents) are predicated on a finite alphabet / state space, which seems woefully inadequate to fully describe our clearly infinitary reality. 1/3 symbolically represents an infinite process. The notion that a finite alphabet can't describe inifity is trivially flawed. |
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That's my point - computable functions are a [vanishingly] small subset of all functions.
For example (and close to our hearts!), the Halting Problem. There is a function from valid programs to halt/not-halt. This is clearly a function, as it has a well defined domain and co-domain, and produces the same output for the same input. However it is not computable!
For sure a finite alphabet can describe an infinity as you show - but not all infinity. For example almost all Real numbers cannot be defined/described with a finite string in a finite alphabet (they can of course be defined with countably infinite strings in a finite alphabet).