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by svara 378 days ago
Is this true even if you don't capitalize the immaterial IP asset generated by the R&D salaries on the balance sheet? Is that required in the US?

Otherwise I'm quite amazed that salaries can be carried forward as future expenses.

2 comments

This is what the Sec 174 change said: it says that you do have to capitalize it.
Elsewhere in the world (under IFRS accounting rules) capitalization of R&D costs has been a firm requirement for a while. The US has been somewhat unique in allowing them to be expensed instead, until recently.
Taxes are calculated according to tax accounting rules, not IFRS, though?

I know of at least two Western European countries where you don't have to do that. Don't worry, we pay enough taxes either way ;)

Yeah, seems I was wrong about that. Apparently most IFRS countries allow expensing R&D for tax purposes, regardless of accounting. Many even have an R&D superdeduction nowadays.

Sorry for the noise :(

I was confused and has to double check. In Australia you can deduct them https://www.ato.gov.au/businesses-and-organisations/income-d...
Came here to ask about the Aussie RDTI. So, if I spend $10M on R&D and make $5M, what's the difference between US and Aussie net?
Some countries have uniform accounting where the tax accounting rules closely follow IFRS.