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by 3836293648 379 days ago
No, they're not, because the GDPR has an explicit exception for when a court orders that a company keeps data for discovery. It'd only be a GDPR violation if it's kept after this case is over.
1 comments

This is not correct.

> Any judgment of a court or tribunal and any decision of an administrative authority of a third country requiring a controller or processor to transfer or disclose personal data may only be recognised or enforceable in any manner if based on an international agreement, such as a mutual legal assistance treaty, in force between the requesting third country and the Union or a Member State, without prejudice to other grounds for transfer pursuant to this Chapter.

So if, and only if, an agreement between the US and the EU allows it explicitly, it is legal. Otherwise it is not.