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by slater 375 days ago
It's not. They've always done it.
1 comments

Well, no, they've always used diaereses, but they've never had a policy of marking them on "the second repeated vowel in a word". You don't see them writing about boöks.
Based on your other comments, you probably already understand this correctly, but for others who might be confused, the actual policy is not that it goes on repeated vowels, but that it goes on the second vowel in a pair to make clear that it starts another syllable. Under this policy, coöperate and naïve get diaereses, but books never would (unless you were somehow trying to indicate a special case where it was pronounced with two syllables). Here's more: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diaeresis_(diacritic)
Yes, because that's not what they're doing.
I said that. I responded to a comment that said they have always "used an umlaut on the second repeated vowel in a word". Is this somehow a problem with my comment?
You were unclear. nkurz explained it well.