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by chongli
417 days ago
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If you don’t allow the empty set to be a set then you break the basic operations of set theory. For example, to show two sets are disjoint you compare their intersection with the empty set. In an alternative axiomatization (without the empty set) you’re going to need to create some special element which belongs to every set and then your definition of disjoint sets is that their intersection is equal to the trivial set containing only the special element. What a clumsy hack that would be! |
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You certainly can do that, but it's not the only way. Even in this universe, I would expect to show that concrete sets A and B are disjoint by showing x ∈ A → x ∉ B, which makes perfect sense even without an empty set.
> In an alternative axiomatization (without the empty set) you’re going to need to create some special element which belongs to every set and then your definition of disjoint sets is that their intersection is equal to the trivial set containing only the special element. What a clumsy hack that would be!
Rather, in this alternate universe, intersection is partially defined. Again, even in this universe, we're used to accepting some operations being partial!