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by andriamanitra 417 days ago
It's not entirely clear if that definition includes 1. On one hand 1 is certainly divisible by both itself and 1, but on the other hand they are the same number, so maybe it shouldn't count for "both", because the word "both" vaguely implies two distinct things. The usual "natural number with exactly two integer divisors" definition may not be as elegant but I think it is harder to misinterpret.
1 comments

I never used the word "both" there.

But thanks anyway! I learned a thing.