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by pmags
435 days ago
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Can you provide some citations / documentation of your claims about "no effect"? As a non-EU / non-UK reader I went searching for more detailed analysis after reading your post. The first detailed analysis I found was the UK Office for Budget Responsibility's Brexit Analysis. [1] The OBR's analysis suggests outcomes like the following (all quoted from that assessment) that seem to suggest some degree of negative economic impact: * The post-Brexit trading relationship between the UK and EU, as set out in the ‘Trade and Cooperation Agreement’ (TCA) that came into effect on 1 January 2021, will reduce long-run productivity by 4 per cent relative to remaining in the EU. * Both exports and imports will be around 15 per cent lower in the long run than if the UK had remained in the EU. [1] https://obr.uk/forecasts-in-depth/the-economy-forecast/brexi... |
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That link is neither analysis nor reporting on outcomes. That's more predictions. This is the exact problem I'm talking about!
To analyze outcomes you must look at the actual data. There's a report that does so here but you can look up the raw data too if you prefer:
https://iea.org.uk/wp-content/uploads/2023/11/Perspectives_5...
From the summary:
"Contrary to initial concerns, Brexit has not had a major detrimental effect on UK–EU trade.
● Trade data doesn’t support the Office for Budget Responsibility’s claims that Brexit has caused significant negative impacts on the UK economy.
● Data from 2019 to 2022 indicates that the trade in both goods and services between the UK and EU hasn’t shown a discernible Brexit effect."
You can look up more recent numbers but the story hasn't changed.
I'd really like to understand the psychology of this phenomenon better. I don't mean this as any personal criticism because it's good that you're asking, but the fact that every time I bring this prediction/reality conflation up I get a rebuttal with more predictions in it is fascinating.