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by 1oooqooq 445 days ago
why? if you subscribe to big bang then all matter got the same "initial kick". would be easier to assume same spin?
2 comments

From my understanding, the big bang requires that the proto-universe was in a completely homogenous state that was then pushed out of that equilibrium for some reason. But that reason doesn't require non-zero angular momentum. It only requires that a the proto-universe was homogenous and now the universe isn't. And that is what separates pre and post big bang. I could be wrong, I am not a cosmologist. Would be happy to hear from one though.
So what caused the "initial kick" to favor one side?
What causes a perfectly symmetric ball on top of a perfectly symmetric hill to roll down via one side? (Probably quantum randomness if everything else is perfectly symmetric)
What caused this universe to favor matter over anti-matter?

So many unanswered questions.