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by coolhand2120
443 days ago
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Is your argument that when a political party hold all major branches of government that it is implicitly corrupt? Or are you arguing that one side is corrupt and the other is not? Is there a theoretical situation where a single party gaining control is simply the will of the voters? That appears to be a potential valid outcome. |
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The issue is not that a single party has control; it’s that a single person has control, having purged that party of all disloyalty or contradiction, and is now proceeding to remake the entire government according to their rather erratic whims, with very little effective restraint.