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by JadeNB
451 days ago
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In the usual terminology, these are not axioms; as your wording itself says, they are definitions. (Indeed, I'd argue that it's almost ungrammatical to say something is "defined in the axioms"; axioms may, and probably must, be stated in terms of definitions, but the definitions are not themselves axioms.) As I say, one can quibble about terminology, since what's important is less what's axiom and what's definition, and more what we can build on top of both; but the usual mathematical presentation separates out the axioms (numbered 1–9 at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peano_axioms#Historical_second..., though things like 2–5 wouldn't usually be stated as an axiom of the theory but rather of the ambient logic) from the definitions (see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peano_axioms#Defining_arithmet...). (Now having written that and looking back, I see that, in my previous post https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=43442074, I wrote "Despite the name, in the usual mathematical meaning of the term, Peano arithmetic does not define arithmetic at all, only the successor operation, and everything else is built from there." Perhaps this infelicitious-to-the-point-of-wrong wording of mine is the source of our difference? I meant to say that Peano arithmetic does not axiomatize arithmetic at all, but that arithmetic can be defined from the axioms. Thus the specific definition x[pt] = [pt] is eminently sensible if we consider the distinguished point [pt] to be playing the usual role of 0; but the definition x[pt] = x is also sensible if we consider it to be playing the usual role of 1, and even things like x[pt] = x + x + x + x + x can be tolerated if we think of [pt] as standing for 5, say. The axioms cannot distinguish among these options, because the axioms say nothing about multiplication.) |
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Enderton, “A Mathematical Introduction to Logic, 2nd Ed.”, p,203,269-270
Kleene, “Mathematical Logic”, p.206
EDIT: It seems like you're talking about Peano's original historical formulation of arithmetic? That's all well and good but it is categorically not what is meant by "Peano Arithmetic" in any modern context. I've provided two citations from pretty far apart in time editions of common logic texts (well, "Mathematical Logic" is a bit of a weird book, but Kleene is certainly an authority) and I hope that demonstrates this.
There's a lot of reasons that the theory is pretty much always discussed as a first-order theory. The biggest, of course, is that when taken as a first-order theory it fits neatly into the proof and statement of Godel's Incompleteness Theorems, but iiuc it's just generally much less useful in a model theoretic context to take it as a second order theory (to the point where I only ever saw this discussed as a historical note, not as a mathematical one).
EDIT 2: This is all a digression anyway. Both first- and second-order PA label the start of the Z-chain as 0; so any model of PA contains 0 when interpreted as a model of PA.