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by thaumasiotes
455 days ago
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I'd expect English speakers to approximate it with /k/ in preference to /ʃ/. (That obviously can't be done when it's following a /t/, but in that case what I'd expect is to just elide the sound completely.) I've been interested for a long time in the concept of speakers of different languages disagreeing on which sounds in one language match which sounds in the other language. I don't know of any examples, but do you think it's true that Welsh speakers find English /ʃ/ to be a better approximation of Welsh /χ/ than English /k/ is, while English speakers find /k/ to be a better approximation of Welsh /χ/ than /ʃ/ is? |
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Unfortunately I am merely a Q-Celt and not qualified to comment, though I'd love to see an answer from someone else.
I would venture that if there is a difference it may arise from the relative differences in phoneme classifcation that result from the mother tongue (c.f. linguistic relativity of colour perception). It might even be possible to divine some of those differences by looking at tables of regional accents like those you can find on Wikipedia/Wiktionary, e.g. https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Appendix:Welsh_pronunciation