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This kind of sloppy writing is too frequently encountered and it is annoying: "Archimedes didn’t think of 22/7, 223/71, or pi as numbers; to him, they were ratios of magnitudes". This has nothing to do with "thinking". This is just about (incorrect) language translation and mathematical terminology. In Ancient Greek and Latin and in any other old languages, the word "number" designated the result of a counting operation, i.e. it corresponds to what in modern mathematical terminology is named "natural number", so it must be translated as such in a mathematical context. In Ancient Greek and Latin, the word "magnitude" (or "measure") designated the result of a measurement operation, like the measurement of a length with a standard ruler or the measurement of a weight with weighing scales, i.e. it corresponds to what in modern mathematical terminology is named "real number", so it must be translated as such in a mathematical context. There is no difference between Archimedes and a modern mathematician, both distinguish natural numbers and real numbers, but since they speak different languages, they use different words for these 2 concepts. Whenever you read an ancient mathematical text, "number" must be understood as "natural number", while "magnitude" or "measure" must be understood as "real number". The names do not matter, this is just a problem of language translation (which is done usually incorrectly for texts with mathematical terms, like also for texts with specialized terms from physics, chemistry, biology or mineralogy, because the translators have little knowledge about those domains). The important difference between ancient mathematics and modern mathematics is that the ancients did not have a method of construction of the real numbers from natural numbers, which has been conceived only in the 19th century, by the time of Cantor, Dedekind etc. The ancients also did not have the method of abstract algebra, where you prove something for a set of axioms of a given form (e.g. of group, of ring, of field etc.) and then the proof is valid for any set where that set of axioms is satisfied. Abstract algebra is also a creation of the 19th century. Because of that, the ancients had 2 independent sets of axioms for natural numbers and for real numbers, even if many of them were identical in form. The consequence of this was that many theorems and demonstrations had to be duplicated for natural numbers and for real numbers, because something proven for one of them could not be applied directly to the other. |
Do you think that sense was shared by the ancients, or do you think that the linguistic distinction mirrored a stronger mental separation between the two? It sounds like it might have done if they had to do the work of duplicating proofs from one to the other. Did they have a single word to describe the shared concept?