[triceratops]

> Congress didn't explicitly disallow it either.

That's the whole point of copyright: only the owner of a copyright has the right to make copies. I don't see how it can be more explicit than that. It's a default-deny policy.

There is an archival exception for digital media, so obviously Congress is open to granting exceptions for backup purposes. They chose not to include physical media in this exception.

[fc417fc802]

> only the owner of a copyright has the right to make copies.

You are conveniently omitting the provisions about fair use, which is strange since you're clearly aware of them. The only things copyright is reasonably unambiguous about are sale and distribution. Even then there's lots of grey areas such as performance rights.

You are arguing that something is obviously disallowed but have nothing but your own interpretation to back that up. If the situation was as clear cut as you're trying to make out then where is the precedent showing that personal use archival copies of physical goods are not permitted?

> They chose not to include physical media in this exception.

That's irrelevant to the current discussion, though I'm fairly certain you realize that. Congress declined to weigh in on the matter which (as you clearly know) leaves it up to the courts to interpret the existing law.

[triceratops]

> You are conveniently omitting the provisions about fair use, which is strange since you're clearly aware of them

Fair use didn't come up but I did mention it here: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=43356289. And there's no need for that tone. I'm not a copyright defender.

> That's irrelevant to the current discussion, though I'm fairly certain you realize that.

I said it because it was relevant.

> where is the precedent showing that personal use archival copies of physical goods are not permitted

> Congress declined to weigh in on the matter

There was no "matter" to "weigh in on". The answer to "Can you make a full, complete copy of a copyrighted work without authorization?" has been "Almost always no" from the beginning of copyright. Even the term "fair use" arose in a US legal precedent over a century after the first copyright laws in England. It became an actual part of US copyright law in the 1970s, less than 50 years ago.

"Fair use" is plausible for a library or archive to make full copies, and keep them safe and archived, since that's their job.

Fair use isn't why we have archival rights for electronic media. That right was written into the law after electronic media became a thing.

In my comment above I gave one example why "fair use" wouldn't work for archival copies of physical media made by individuals. An actual lawyer who's paid by the copyright mafia to care about this stuff can surely find more and stronger reasons.

FWIW someone in another comment pointed out Australian copyright law allows making a copy of books, newspapers, and periodicals for personal, domestic use. Which means: a) it can be done and b) even they had to spell it out specifically

> which (as you clearly know) leaves it up to the courts to interpret the existing law.

I don't agree but believe what you like.