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by anovikov 460 days ago
Easy peasy, famines were commonplace in Spain during the Middle Ages (not sure how about part of it that was controlled by the Muslims though, but i don't think it was much different). During the Middle Ages, famines (and epidemics) were the natural regulator of population and were seen as a normal thing. By the XIX century of course, things were very different....

In Spain at the period, there were no famines because people kept emigrating to the colonies. Ireland was itself a colony. That's the difference. In Eastern Europe where countries didn't have colonies, famines were a norm.

Irish one is seen as something special because it happened in the West, and because overpopulation there built up for a considerable time being allowed by potatoes farming that for the time being, provided plenty of food allowing population to build up. Then it backfired.

As for local populations pre-existing in the colonies, sure they almost all died out. To a much larger proportion than the Irish, and sometimes, went entirely extinct. That is the normal part of absorbing new lands. It's just that Ireland was Christian almost since Christianity became a thing, and was never "discovered", that made it special. But we shouldn't pretend like it wasn't normal or in any way exceptional overall. Genocide is a natural way in which nations interact.

1 comments

> Irish one is seen as something special because it happened in the West, and because overpopulation there built up for a considerable time being allowed by potatoes farming

There was no overpopulation problem in Ireland! It was _less_ dense than England, while having similar climate and agricultural capacity. The reason for the famine was that the food that was abundantly produced in Ireland was transferred to England to support their cities (which did have an overpopulation problem). There was more than enough food produced in Ireland to feed everyone in Ireland. That is not what overpopulation looks like.

It's also easy to say no major famines happened in Spain because of her colonies, except that by the time of the famine she had very few remaining. Spanish people had the same capacity to emigrate to the Americas as the Irish did. Your argument was that Irish people were too Catholic to control their population but you haven't addressed the fact that that wasn't a problem in any of the other Catholic countries. The same should be true of Italy, who didn't even have a former empire to call on.