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by bbqfog 474 days ago
Why would they "compromise" with the people who stole their land. Were the Jews meant to "compromise" with the Nazis?
1 comments

You are wrong.

No land was stolen. Up until 1948 all lands inhabited by jews were purchased from their legal owners - I challenge you - please show me a case where palestinians had their land "stolen" pre-1948.

The Balfour Declaration and Nakba are things you desperately need to read up on.
I've read all about those, thanks for the suggestion.
6.6%, according to Wikipedia. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jewish_land_purchase_in_Palest...

Also note, from the same page:

> The purchase of land was often accompanied by the eviction of the Arab tenants.

> When it came to the national aspirations of the Zionist movement, the Ottoman Empire opposed the idea of Jewish self-rule in Palestine, fearing it might lose control of Palestine after recently having lost other territories to various European powers.

> In 1881 the Ottoman governmental administration (the Sublime Porte) decreed that foreign Jews could immigrate to and settle anywhere within the Ottoman Empire, except in Palestine and from 1882 until their defeat in 1918, the Ottomans continuously restricted Jewish immigration and land purchases in Palestine.

Ok now we're getting somewhere.

Can we agree now that no land was stolen? It was purchased from their rightful owners and then, according to Ilan Pappe, ( the one whose book is cited claiming Arab tenants were evicted) who is a known anti Zionist, and hardly an impartial investigator, "often" Arab tenants were evicted.

This is a claim, not an evidence