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by silentbicycle 5065 days ago
Indeed. It makes sense to me. Are my intuitions about the origins of ;s separating top-level clauses accurate?

(Hello, Robert! :) )

1 comments

Sort of. The syntax evolved at the same time we were moving from Prolog onto our own implementation, which forced us to write our own parser and not rely on the original Prolog one. The biggest syntax change came around 1991, since then it has been mainly smaller additions and adjustments.