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by chasil
484 days ago
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As far as I would think, each state could set their own requirements for voting, and some ownership of land was also a requirement from what I remember. So Google suggested "who could vote in 1789” and the top result was from the Regan library. https://reagan.blogs.archives.gov/2022/03/29/road-to-the-vot... Reading... "The most common requirements for voter eligibility was that each prospective voter had to be a white male who owned property of a certain dollar value. "...by the time of the 1828 Presidential Election, the majority of the land-ownership requirements were eliminated from state laws. The final state to remove the property requirement was North Carolina in 1856, just five years before the Civil War began. "...Certain states went through cycles where the right to vote was granted, removed, and re-granted to ethnic minorities over the course of decades... In 1870, the Fifteenth Amendment granted the right to vote to all American men regardless of “race, color, or previous condition of servitude.” The right to vote was now Federally defined, but it would take one-hundred years of historical, social, and political developments for the VRA to universally enshrine it." |
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> Today a man owns a jackass worth fifty dollars and he is entitled to vote; but before the next election the jackass dies. The man in the meantime has become more experienced…and he is therefore better qualified to make a proper selection of rulers — but the jackass is dead and the man cannot vote. Now gentlemen…in whom is the right of suffrage? In the man or in the jackass?"
> -- Attributed to Benjamin Franklin, taken from “The Casket, or the Flowers of Literature, Wit and Sentiment,” 1828
[1] https://www.amrevmuseum.org/virtualexhibits/when-women-lost-...