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by romaaeterna
488 days ago
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The switch from aspirate to fricative pronunciations in Greek was between 2-400AD, and was related to ongoing processes in the language unrelated to jaw change. I'm also skeptical of the only piece of data presented in the article, that it's 29% easier to pronounce these sounds with an overbite. Is that a stable measurement? How much does that speed childhood acquisition of the capacity for these sounds? Percentage of the population that cannot make the sounds at all? |
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