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by jdhwosnhw
481 days ago
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Norton’s dome is a valid paradox, in the sense that the math really does admit two valid equations of motion. The link you provided doesn’t dispute that fact (other than commenters pointing out that you need a proportionality constant to make the units work out).
My favorite intuitive explanation for the presence of the paradox is well summarized by the Wikipedia article on the dome: “To see that all these equations of motion are physically possible solutions, it's helpful to use the time reversibility of Newtonian mechanics. It is possible to roll a ball up the dome in such a way that it reaches the apex in finite time and with zero energy, and stops there. By time-reversal, it is a valid solution for the ball to rest at the top for a while and then roll down in any one direction.” |
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To work the curvature of the dome is infinite is at the apex, which then breaks many things. There’s a lot of disagreements around this paradox and much older related examples because Newtonian physics is somewhat ill defined: https://philsci-archive.pitt.edu/8833/1/dome_v3.pdf