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by Monotoko
5077 days ago
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British law is all about intent, if I intend to deprive the store of that can of coke then it is indeed theft. However, if I drink a little bit before paying it doesn't. The store have to prove I intended to deprive them of it (which I wouldn't do) |
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"Well, to be pedantic:
S.2(2) Theft Act 1968 states that a person may be dishonest notwithstanding a willingness to pay.
You could also fall foul of "Doing an act inconsistent with the rights of the owner"
"
So the store doesn't absolutely have to prove intent.