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by timr
502 days ago
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You're talking about reduction in statistical variance due to replication of measurement (and then averaging). I'm talking about what happens when they extrapolate from that value by a huge factor (which is what they've done, and the silly article does egregiously). The paper isn't clear what they mean when they said "~25% within-sample coefficient of variation", so I can't directly address what you're asking, but it's tangential to the point I'm making. My naïve interpretation is that they did an ANOVA, and reported the within-group variance, or something similar. All I'm saying in my footnote is that, whatever the final point estimate, scaling it by a factor of C will affect the variance of the final sample distribution by C^2. So for example, if you have an 8% variance on the measurement at ug/g, and you scale it by 1300 (for 1300g; what the interwebs tells me is the mass of a standard human brain), then you'd expect the variance of the scaled measurement to be 1300^2 * 8%. That makes a ton of assumptions that probably don't hold in practice -- and I expect the real error to be larger -- but illustrates the point. |
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If you do a small-scale measurement, say you get result of 5g, with a standard deviation of 0.2g. That means the variance is 0.04 g^2.
If you then scale the setup up by 1000 (=> getting 5kg as expected value), then the variance scales to 1000^2 * 0.04 = 40000 g^2.
BUT the standard deviation is still 200g. The relative uncertainty is NOT increasing quadratically!
(another sanity check: if you change the units by a factor of 1000, your variance must not increase, relatively).
But maybe I misunderstood your point?