Hacker News new | ask | show | jobs
by pwr22 506 days ago
and that means?
4 comments

That there's a probability of 4.20e-05 that the observed difference of that large would happen by chance due to observation noise if there would be no real difference (given your assumptions about the data generating process holds).
The normality assumption is a large stretch, especially since there an absolute lower limit near the observation and a somewhat discrete distribution, so a t-test isn't appropriate. But then again it looks significant, so there's no real need for a test
Something like Mann-Whitney U would be safer. But it's indeed quite obvious from the samples that the difference is robust.
In a lot of fields, p=0.05 is good enough to publish. p=0.0001 means it's really f*ing unlikely that the difference in means is due to random chance.
Evidence more than strong enough to be published in most fields. Not quite strong enough to qualify as "discovery" in high-energy physics.
Depends on your alpha ;) . But it's significant.
That really does not answer the question.