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by cowfriend
518 days ago
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Um, no. The three-fifths compromise was to reduce the power of the Southern states in the House of Representatives. The southern states wanted slaves counted in their population, thus increasing the southern's states power in that house, even though the slaves themselves would not have any voice in who was elected. The southern states would have (and did) use this power to continue slavery. Re: the founding fathers and slave ownership. Thomas Jefferson treated his slaves as free people. Why didn't he actually emancipate them? Well, let's say he did, would anyone else recognize them as emancipated, respect their rights to own property, to work, to be free? Be careful how you apply the context of this era when judging past eras. And wonder how future generations will view us, who destroyed and slaughtered the earth for what? |
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