Where's the source for your assertion? You're making a claim that foreign investment is beneficial with no source, but then requiring one when someone disagrees with you?
A theoretical argument was countered with an assertion - it's plausible that investment -> lower risk, but there is no reasoning to get "foreign investment is focused on X area".
I mean, I can see a reason provided. Isn't that the whole point of foreign direct investing? That's more than an assertion - that's why I call it a theoretical argument. There's no need to debate semantics.
For a lot of foreign investment, the point is to hide money. A lot of investment provides negative value. Hidden money in residential real estate inflates the market and in most of these cases they also leave the units vacant, reducing housing stock. In some cases it isn't to hide money, but instead for speculation, and usually in those cases they also leave the units vacant, because occupied units can reduce value, and in those cases it's also reduced stock and inflated markets.