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by knubie 533 days ago
From that wikipedia article:

> It may include near-cash government transfers like food stamps, and it may be adjusted to include social transfers in-kind, such as the value of publicly provided health care and education.

Additionally from the OECD website:

> Household adjusted disposable income additionally reallocates "income" from government and Non-Profit Institutions Serving Households (NPISHs) to households to reflect social transfers in kind. These transfers reflect expenditures made by government or NPISHs on individual goods and services, such as health and education, on behalf of an individual household.

1 comments

that still doesn't take into account the fact that US households must spend much more on healthcare and education than the expenditures made by EU governments on those same services.

Also housing is more expensive in the US (total cost, not per sqft), as is food; in fact, the cost of living in general in the US is more expensive than Europe or Japan, with the notable exception of cars and gas.

For example, I just searched cost of living in France vs USA and the first two sites I found gave similar figures of 30% more in the US. Not representative of all of Europe of course but an interesting data point.

https://www.mylifeelsewhere.com/cost-of-living/france/united...

https://www.numbeo.com/cost-of-living/compare_countries_resu...

Accrding to the wikipedia article you referenced, the OECD data is already adjusted for purchasing power parity (PPP), which is a cost of living adjustment. [0]

[0] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disposable_household_and_per_c...

good point, I missed that; that does take into account COL differences then, though not healthcare and education expenses