[Kiro]

> We don’t have a shareholders agreement so he could in theory dilute me by issuing new shares using company or investor money

How does that work? Wouldn't that dilute his share as well? And wouldn't the valuation increase accordingly, making your share keep its value intact?

[biphasic]

because he has a 2/3 majority, he can lift my rights for preferential subscription, which means I don't get the chance to buy them. He could issue new shares at a really low price and buy them himself.