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by w1ntermute
5080 days ago
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> the judicial system itself is based on Roman law rather than Common Law or the Napoleonic Continental System Says on Wikipedia[0] that it's a hybrid of Roman and English law. Why did they even use Roman law at all? The Roman Empire had been gone for several centuries, and England was in control after the 1707 Acts of Union, so it's surprising they didn't reform the system to follow English procedures. 0: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scottish_law |
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One of the difference between Roman (aka civil) law and English (aka common) law is the that precent matters differently.
Lots of countries in Europe are based on civil aka Roman law.
The Act of Union in 1707 Scottish law was guaranteed to continue after the union, that was a demand. Why didn't they change it? Probably for the same reason the USA adopt Mexican law? Why should they? It's a different country with different legal systems.