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by stephencanon
5084 days ago
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You have very clearly established the following: ab = ba --> (ab)^2 = a^2b^2
It is less obvious that you have proven that: (ab)^2 = a^2b^2 --> ab = ba
If I were grading a sophomore algebra class, I would expect to see something along the lines of: Suppose (ab)^2 = a^2b^2.
Re-associating gives us a(ba)b = a(ab)b;
multiplying on the left and right by the
inverses of a and b gives the result.
In any domain outside of a sophomore algebra class, I happily accept much briefer and more hand-wavy proofs. |
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