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by stephencanon 5084 days ago
You have very clearly established the following:

    ab = ba --> (ab)^2 = a^2b^2
It is less obvious that you have proven that:

    (ab)^2 = a^2b^2 --> ab = ba
If I were grading a sophomore algebra class, I would expect to see something along the lines of:

    Suppose (ab)^2 = a^2b^2.
    Re-associating gives us a(ba)b = a(ab)b;
    multiplying on the left and right by the
    inverses of a and b gives the result.
In any domain outside of a sophomore algebra class, I happily accept much briefer and more hand-wavy proofs.
1 comments

Ah, when I read your response I flipped the order of the problem around in recalling it, so had the if and only-if backwards. Yes, I was handwavy there but it seemed clear enough for the setting (which you seem to be granting anyway) - just wanted to be sure I wasn't misunderstanding something. Thanks :)