[wyager]

> If you pay money to run electoral ads, for someone's campaign, this money has to be declared, and the ads should be marked as such.

Do you really think this makes sense as a justification for a court to depose a candidate, or are you just being disingenuous for rhetorical purposes?

If we actually apply your logic as stated, then anyone could unilaterally "disqualify" any candidate by buying political ads on their behalf and not reporting the ads.