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by jltsiren
565 days ago
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The median income on that page is the median disposable household income, divided by the square root of household size. Because American households are large for developed countries, measures like that overestimate the income of the median American relative to the median European. There is an easy sanity check: Swiss GDP per capita is higher than in the US, both in absolute terms and in PPP terms. Their Gini coefficient is lower, meaning that the income distribution is more equal than in the US. If a comparison shows that the average/median disposable income is substantially higher in the US than in Switzerland, it is measuring something weird. |
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Also, I’d imagine Swiss housing costs could easily account for the difference in disposable income.
I’m totally open to the idea the economists at the OECD are dumb and put out bad numbers, but I’d argue GDP per capita (GDP being a flawed measure to begin with due to only including consumption incl. government spending) is a far worse measure of on the ground reality than something that accounts for actual household income and expenses.