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by mdp2021
573 days ago
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I meant that it is explicit, not just an assumption but the very metaphysics. A Logos is thought as predominant over the Agent that uses it. (Otherwise, it would be logical to have perfection and only perfection immediately.) > an argument from faith I think it remains (it was intended to be) a logical argument from the very definitions (not from devotional faith). -- Edit: sorry, but I realize I misremembered a few important details, that could make the above quite misleading... Leibniz speaks of full omnipotence. So, that Logos is not "above" Divinity in an ontological sense, but in a purely logical sense. I.e. it was impossible to do differently as this is "the best possible plan", not "the best achievable". > we are not well enough acquainted with the general harmony of the universe and of the hidden reasons for his conduct; and that makes people recklessly judge that many things could have been improved [... // ...] to know in detail his reasons for ordering the universe as he has, allowing sin, and granting his saving grace in one way rather than another, is beyond the power of a finite mind ~~ Leibniz, Discourse on Metaphysics(1686) |
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