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by lolinder
590 days ago
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No, your claim is backwards—if the parties have agreed that dimes are valid payment of debt then that agreement must be upheld. Absent a prior agreement to accept dimes, the party receiving the money may refuse any combination of currency that they see fit. In other words, an agreement isn't required in order to refuse legal tender, an agreement would be required to make it mandatory. A court might decide that an agreement to accept cash without specifying in what form was meant to include dimes, but I see no evidence anywhere that a court has to rule that way if the contextual evidence suggests something else was probably meant. |
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