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by n4r9
580 days ago
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That sounds wrong. Perhaps you're confusing frequency with likelihood? IQ is standardised so that population scores on a standard test have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15. It's possible to obtain this with as fewer than 100 people, distributed as: * One "genius" who scores 200 * One "dumbass" who scores 0 * 87 "everyman" who score 100. The mean here is clearly 100, and the variance is sqrt(20000/89) = 14.99. Of course this is very contrived and doesn't look much like a Bell curve in the first place. But with say a million people it wouldn't take much to come up with a more realistic looking example. |
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