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by andyjenn
5090 days ago
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Something I've wondered, presumably for several hundred years, Ptolemy's observations could be thought of as the standard model, and consistently day after day, year after year, the sun rose in the east and set in the west to 5 or 6 sigma etc.. that it could be said was proof he was correct.
Ptolemy is often spoken in the pejorative, but for so long until the man from Krakow came along, how could you prove otherwise?
Does this situation apply today and that a future "Copernicus" will turn the Higgs Boson on its head?
Genuinely interested how a consistent set of findings which correspond to predictions, can really be said to prove a discovery? |
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