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I also have heard that, multiple times. I don't buy it. I think there are at least two experiments that could show the difference. First, you could time the travel of light from one place to another. To do that, you need synchronized clocks. The easy way to do that is to start with clocks synchronized at a central point, then very slowly move them from the central point to the endpoints. Why very slowly? Because you have to worry about time dilation with the clocks. For small v, the difference in the rate of time is approximately v^2/2c^2 (to first order). The amount of time you have to maintain it is t = d/v. The corresponding difference in clock time still approaches zero as v approaches zero, so in principle, the clocks can be arbitrarily close to each other in time if you just move them slowly enough. But what if c has different values in opposite directions? Well, then time dilates different amounts for the clocks going in opposite directions, but the amount of time dilation for each clock still approaches zero if the velocity is low enough. Second: If you have a cyclotron or synchrotron, with charged particles moving in a circle in a magnetic field, and those charged particles are moving a significant fraction of the speed of light, if the speed of light is not uniform, their motion should deviate from a circle. Why? Because the force on them due to the magnetic field should be the same, but the acceleration should be different depending on what fraction of the speed of light they're moving. (Due to increased mass, if you think of it that way. If you don't, well, the equation doesn't change.) I think that some experiments would fail to show a non-uniform speed of light, but I think experiments could be devised that would show it. |
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/One-way_speed_of_light
A lot of scientists have thought about this. Step one is checking their work.