| I think this is the core issue for me in these discussion - it is not complex at all. If you sell your securities - you pay a tax - that part is simple. Until they it is "unrealized" - right? > If you write a covered call, did you "use" the asset?
Yes > If your broker lends your shares out, are they being used?
Yes > What about presenting your brokerage statement as proof of assets to a mortgage banker?
Of course not > What about--I've done this--showing your brokerage statements to American Express to get a better rate?
Of course not > You'd raise taxes on the middle class who can't afford advice
This is always funny to me, middle class :) For sure it would not affect the middle class and there.is not need to "afford advice" when there is nothing complex about this that needs an advice of anyone. > Because at the end of the day, what you're trying to differentiate is intent
Not at all, it is not "intent" at all - it is just very, very simple... You can own stock and keep it there - no problems. You want to use it for ANYTHING, you pay taxes on it. |
This wouldn't make any sense, you didn't use it (unless the call gets exercised).
So you have 200 shares and write 1 call, you'd pay tax on the appreciation of just 100 shares? Then sell another call next week, pay taxes again?
> What about presenting your brokerage statement as proof of assets to a mortgage banker? Of course not
I though it was simple. Now the loopholes start to appear.