|
|
|
|
|
by krapp
615 days ago
|
|
No it isn't, because wages aren't set based on some objective measurement of the quality of value produced. If that were the case, increases in productivity would have resulted in a commensurate increase in wages, but the only increase is the gap between wages and productivity. |
|
What you’ve described here is the way it’s supposed to work. But after decades of “progress” in removing morality you see the wage gap problem now.