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by mopsi 635 days ago
> You may tell me how it was Russia's fault the US/EU instigated the coup d'état in Ukraine for a change.

There was no coup in Ukraine. The sitting president was responsible for getting over 100 protestors killed. First he went into hiding as it became clear that had lost all political support in Ukraine and would be facing criminal charges, then Russian secret services helped him escape to Russia.

Ukrainian parlament assembled, voted with 328-vs-0 to hold early elections for a new president. Not even a single member of his own party voted in favor of the Russian puppet who ran away. Elections were held soon thereafter and even Russia recognized its results after a delay.

Calling this a coup indicates lack of knowledge or intentional maliciousness.

1 comments

> Calling this a coup indicates lack of knowledge or intentional maliciousness.

Elected president gets forcibly removed -> coup. It's the definition of the word.

edit: I am not even sure how this can be malicious in any context.

Early elections are not a coup: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Snap_election
So I can just make a threat of life to my national leader and make an early election and that is not a coup?
Ukrainian president was not "forcibly removed", but replaced through general elections by the people of Ukraine. Early elections are a standard attribute of most parliamentary democracies. 55% voted for Petro Poroshenko, who became the next president. His closest competitor got 13%. Turnout was 60%.

This is the opposite of "illegal seizure of power by a small group", as coup is commonly defined.

was the russian revolution a coup?

Are all subsequent russian rulers illegitimate?