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I would think the written contract becomes a new agreement that supersedes the verbal one. What if there's a dispute in the terms of the written contract that was never brought up verbally?

I actually am looking for clarification b/c I would be interested in knowing if the prior verbal agreement trumps all future written discussions. It just isn't what I guess would be the case, and I can certainly see how someone would interpret being asked to sign a contract a renegotiation of terms, which is what I think happened in this case.